Week Four Quiz

The quiz is divided into two sections. The first section contains questions that assess your recall of essential biological facts. The second set of questions asks you to apply your knowledge of material presented to solve clinical or research problems. The questions in the second set are similar to what you will encounter on the self-assessment and qualifier.

Instructions: To check your answer, click on the option you think is correct.

  1. Which of the following is the primary function of the urea cycle?

    1. Synthesis of glucose
    2. Conversion of ammonia to urea
    3. Production of ATP
    4. Metabolism of fatty acids
  2. In which organ does the urea cycle predominantly occur?

    1. Kidney
    2. Liver
    3. Heart
    4. Muscle
  3. Which enzyme is responsible for the formation of carbamoyl phosphate in the urea cycle?

    1. Ornithine transcarbamylase
    2. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
    3. Arginase
    4. Arginosuccinate synthetase
  4. Which compound enters the urea cycle to combine with carbamoyl phosphate?

    1. Citrulline
    2. Ornithine
    3. Arginine
    4. Aspartate
  5. Allopurinol, a medication used to manage gout, works by inhibiting which enzyme?

    1. Xanthine oxidase
    2. Ribonucleotide reductase
    3. Adenosine deaminase
    4. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase
  6. Which metabolic pathway is most directly involved in the formation of uric acid?

    1. Purine breakdown
    2. Pyrimidine metabolism
    3. Nucleotide salvage pathway
    4. De novo pyrimidine synthesis
  7. What is the role of ribose-5-phosphate in purine metabolism?

    1. It inhibits xanthine oxidase.
    2. It is the substrate in the first step of purine synthesis.
    3. It is a product of purine catabolism.
    4. It is used in the synthesis of pyrimidines.
  8. In purine metabolism, which of the following substances is converted to uric acid by xanthine oxidase?

    1. Hypoxanthine
    2. Adenosine.
    3. Thymidine
    4. UMP
  9. Which vitamin is essential for the synthesis of purine nucleotides?

    1. Vitamin B12
    2. Vitamin C
    3. Folic acid
    4. Vitamin D
  10. Where does the majority of fatty acid β-oxidation occur in the cell?

    1. Nucleus
    2. Cytosol
    3. Mitochondria
    4. Endoplasmic Reticulum
  11. Which enzyme is responsible for the activation of fatty acids before β-oxidation?

    1. Carnitine acyltransferase I
    2. Acyl-CoA synthetase
    3. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
    4. HMG-CoA reductase Reticulum
  12. What is the primary product of each round of β-oxidation?

    1. NADH
    2. FADH2
    3. Acetyl-CoA
    4. ATP
  13. In the well-fed state, which of the following hormones stimulates fatty acid synthesis?

    1. Glucagon
    2. Epinephrine
    3. Insulin
    4. Cortisol
  14. What is the major site of ketone body utilization?

    1. Liver
    2. Brain
    3. Adipose tissue
    4. Kidney
  15. Which cofactor is essential for fatty acid synthesis?

    1. NADH
    2. FAD
    3. NADPH
    4. Coenzyme Q
  16. The process of gluconeogenesis primarily occurs in which organ?

    1. Kidney
    2. Liver
    3. Muscle
    4. Adipose tissue
  17. In the fed state, which organ is primarily responsible for regulating blood glucose levels?

    1. Muscle
    2. Adipose tissue
    3. Liver
    4. Brain
  18. Which enzyme is primarily responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication?

    1. DNA polymerase
    2. Topoisomerase
    3. Helicase
    4. Primase
  19. What is the function of DNA primase during DNA replication?

    1. Unwinding the DNA
    2. Synthesizing the leading strand
    3. Laying down RNA primers
    4. Repairing damaged DNA
  20. Okazaki fragments are synthesized on which strand during DNA replication?

    1. Leading strand
    2. Lagging strand
    3. Template strand
    4. Coding strand
  21. Which enzyme seals the gaps between Okazaki fragments to form a continuous DNA strand?

    1. Helicase
    2. Primase
    3. Topoisomerase
    4. DNA ligase
  22. DNA polymerase has which type of proofreading activity to correct errors during replication?

    1. 5' to 3' exonuclease
    2. 3' to 5' exonuclease
    3. 5' to 3' polymerase
    4. 3' to 5' polymerase
  23. Which enzyme relieves supercoiling tension in the DNA ahead of the replication fork?

    1. Topoisomerase
    2. Helicase
    3. Ligase
    4. DNA polymerase

Application Questions

  1. You are treating patients with hypertension and prescribe an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4)to relax the smooth muscle around blood vessels to increase their diameter and reduce their resistance to blood flow. You notice in some of the patients an increase in serum glucose levels even when they have not eaten in a while. What does this suggest about glycogen breakdown in the body?

    1. Stimulated by protein kinase A
    2. Stimulated by protein kinase C
    3. Stimulated by cytosolic calcium
    4. Stimulated by MAP kinase

    Show Explanation

  2. A 65-year old patient presents with a blood test indicating hypercholesterolemia. You decide to prescribe a statin which have been found to lower serum cholesterol levels. There are several types of statins. Some are lipophilic while others are hydrophilic. Which type would have the larger volume of distribution in the patient?

    1. Lipophilic
    2. Hydrophilic
    3. Neither, they would have similar volumes of distribution

    Show Explanation

  3. You decide to prescribe an hydrophilic statin called pravastatin. Before prescribing the drug, you look up some information on the drug.

    • Volume of distribution = 0.5L/kg
    • Clearance = 3.5ml/min/kg

    The patient weight 70 kg. Calculate the half-life of pravastatin in the patient.

    1. 0.4 hours
    2. 1.7 hours
    3. 2.4 hours
    4. 2.4 hours

    Show Explanation

  4. A 42-year-old male presents to the emergency department with symptoms of confusion, ataxia, and impaired judgment. His wife mentions that he has consumed a large amount of wine over the past six hours. The patient is also on phenytoin for a seizure disorder and takes warfarin for a history of deep vein thrombosis. On physical examination, he is visibly intoxicated, with a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of 180 mg/dL (0.18%).

    Which of the following pharmacokinetic principles best explains why continual administration of ethanol can be particularly dangerous when blood alcohol concentration is high in this patient?

    1. Michaelis-Menten kinetics resulting in first-order elimination
    2. Induction of Cytochrome P450 enzymes
    3. Zero-order elimination
    4. Competitive inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase

    Show Explanation

  5. A 55-year-old man with a history of asthma presents to his primary care physician with symptoms of exertional chest pain. His cardiac workup reveals stable angina. A pharmaceutical representative suggests prescribing a new beta-blocker that shows 50-fold selectivity for β1 over β2 receptors in vitro. Which of the following best explains why this drug might still be contraindicated in this patient?

    1. The drug's efficacy at β1 receptors is too low to provide therapeutic benefit
    2. The drug will cause complete blockade of both β1 and β2 receptors
    3. The high concentrations needed for angina treatment will result in significant β2 receptor occupancy
    4. The drug's affinity for β2 receptors increases during exercise
    5. The drug will cause desensitization of β1 receptors

    Show Explanation

  6. A 60 kg woman has a bacterial infection. You decide to administer an antibiotic that has a volume of distribution of 0.2 L/kg. The drug has a clearance of 200 ml/min. If you administer the drug by constant intravenous infusion, approximately how long will it take for the plasma concentration of the antibiotic to reach steady-state levels?

    1. 30 min
    2. 1 hr
    3. 3 hr
    4. 24 hr

    Show Explanation

  7. A person who is houseless comes to your clinical and reports not having eaten in two day. The patient's serum glucose concentration is at the lower end of normal. Which source is currently allowing the patient to maintain serum glucose concentrations

    1. Amino acids
    2. Fatty acids
    3. Glycogen
    4. Ketone bodies

    Show Explanation

  8. A 23-year old patient comes to your clinic with an irregular-shaped mole on their back that contains regions which differ in color. A biopsy and histological analysis indicate melanoma. The patient reports a history of tanning and extensive sun-exposure as a teenager. What type of mutation most likely led to development of the melanoma?

    1. Nucleotide deletion
    2. Nucleotide insertion
    3. Thymine dimer
    4. Nucleotide deamination

    Show Explanation

  9. In the patient's cells, which process is actively involved in repairing the damage from UV light?

    1. Base excision repair
    2. Nucleotide excision repair
    3. Mismatch repair
    4. Homologous recombination

    Show Explanation